Mr. Smith has no history of mental illness but does abuse cocaine. One night, while high on cocaine, he becomes very paranoid and stabs his friend who he thinks (delusionally) is trying to kill him. The next day, when he is no longer high, he realizes that his perception was completely distorted.Do you recommend Mr. Smith should be found legally insane?
If so, why – on what grounds?
If not, why not?
What should his disposition be?
As per my opinion Mr. Smith cannot
be regarded as legally insane as
he was under the influence of cocaine and he was not in conscious
state of mind. He was in inebriated condition that time and he had
misconception that his friend is going to kill him. So in self
defense he killed him but that actually his friend was not going to
kill him it was misconception of Smith.
He was not in his senses. Subsequently(later), Mr. Smith realized
that his perception was distorted which made him perceive that his
friend is trying to kill him and for his self-defense he stabbed
him. His disposition is of skepticism
and mis concepting.
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