Ignoring hedonic pricing considerations in input(s) and output(s) and
also ignoring dynamics, consider the ONE-OUTPUT and ONE-INPUT case
in which BOTH the output and input markets operate under perfectly
competitive market structures. Please analyze the following situation. First,
let’s assume that using some “old” technology (of course assuming constant
input and output prices, because of the existence of perfectly competitive
markets structures in the input and output markets) you derive the optimal
level of input use to be X* [of course given by the equation where VMPx =rx,,
where VMPx is equal to (Py) (MPPx)]. Now assume that there is a “new”
technology which shifts up in a parallel manner the entire production
function (i.e., the production function ships UP proportionally no changing
its slope all the way through all levels of X, meaning that with the “new”
technology when compared to the “old” technology a higher level of output
will result at all levels of input use). Question (5.a) Will the “new” level of
input use be higher, lower, or remain the same with the “new” technology
when compared to the “old” technology, elaborate in detail? Question (5.b)
What would be the highest amount of money a decision maker facing the
adoption or no-adoption of the “new” technology be willing to pay for the
“new” technology?
Question (5.a) Will the "new" level of input use be higher, lower, or remain the same with the "new" technology when compared to the "old" technology, elaborate in detail?
Question (5.b) What would be the highest amount of money a decision maker facing the adoption or no-adoption of the "new" technology be willing to pay for the "new" technology?
Get Answers For Free
Most questions answered within 1 hours.