Why is it possible for me to pump myself full of a hormone and not have a physiological response?
A) There would likely be no effect if the receptor for the hormone is not expressed in the tissues of the body
B) Because the hormone receptor matches the hormone
C) Because the hormone receptor is expressed in all tissue of the body
D) Because the hormone receptor is not blocked by receptor antagonist
Option A
For the hormones to cause the physiological effect, it must have the receptors on the cells to bind and to produce the cellular changes that will cause the physiological effect.
So lack of expression of the receptors will have no effect even though the hormone is available in ample amounts.
If receptor is blocked by an antagonist, it won't have any effect. But option D shows that the receptor is not blocked and it's free... So it will have physiological response.
Hope this helps... Thank you!!!
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