If you find a strong positive correlation between poverty and education level, can you conclude that education is a causative factor in poverty? Why or why not?
Can you use a regression model to estimate a value for y if there is no linear correlation?
What are 2 things you learned in the class you did not know prior to taking it?
If there is strong positive correlation between poverty and education level, then there is strong association between them. Association mean tendency between the variables. i.e education level effects the poverty and poverty effects education level. But it is not Cause and effect relationship.
If there is no correlation then there is no association or relation between the variables. In this case if correlation exists then regression exists, but no correaltion resulting no regression.
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