The Excel Corp. has $1 million in corporate debt outstanding with a after-tax cost of 5%, and a maturity of two years. The only way it can finance a $500,000 investment is to refinance with $1.5 million of debt with a similar maturity, costing 8% after-tax. The investment would pay $55,000 in year 1 and $555,000 in year 2 (the investment has an IRR of .11). Assume that the current cost of equity is 12%, and that after refinancing, the firm will be 50% leveraged. Debt costs and cash flows are on an after-tax basis.
Should the investment be accepted? (You need to find out what WACC is after refinancing the debt first, and then use WACC to discount future cash flows)
Unlevered Cost of Equity = 12%
Since no tax rate given in the question, is is assumed to be 0%
D/E ratio after re-financing = 1 : 1(since 50% leveraged)
Levered Cost of Equity = ke*(1+D/E(1-t)) = 12%
After tax -WACC = kd*Wd*(1-t) + ke * We = 0.5* 8% + 0.5* 12% = 10%
Year 1 cash flow = $ 55,000
Year 2 Cash Flow = $ 555,000
Year 0 Cash flow = -500,000
NPV of Investment = -50000 + 55000/(1+10%) + 555000/(1+10%)^2 = $ 4,545
IRR of Investment = 10.52%
As NPV > 0 and IRR > WACC, the investment can be accepted.
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