this is concerning Q.6 chap 1 of Options, futures and other derivatives, 10th ed of John Hull;
how come we do not consider the marking to market on futures contract?
wouldn't a trader with a short position on a futures, (takes short position at 50$), be losing money, if futures Price at maturity is 48.5 ?
Given | |||||
50000 | pounds | ||||
No. of futures contracts shorted |
50000 | ||||
Agreed future price | 50 | ||||
a) | Future spot price | 48.2 | |||
Gain | =(50-48.2)*50000 | ||||
90000 | |||||
b) | Future spot price | 51.3 | |||
Loss | =(51.3-50)*50000 | ||||
65000 | |||||
Please understand that in futures contract the MTM happens on a daily basis. Here the assumption is that on the last day of trade is that the value of spot is 48.5 so what will be the net MTM of that day.
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