Consider the following two earnings distributions for two countries (Country A and Country B).
a) Calculate the following for each country:
i) the variance of earnings
ii) the coefficient of variation for earnings
iii) the 80-20 ratio
iv) the area under the Lorenz Curve for earnings
v) the Gini Coefficient for earnings.
b) Comparing your answers in part a, which country has greater earnings inequality?
Country A |
Country B |
|||
Worker |
Earnings |
Worker |
Earnings |
|
1 |
1 |
1 |
1 |
|
2 |
1 |
2 |
10 |
|
3 |
1 |
3 |
10 |
|
4 |
1 |
4 |
10 |
|
5 |
10 |
5 |
10 |
country A
mean = (1+1+1+1+10)/5 = 14/5 =2.8
var = ((1-2.8)^2+(1-2.8)^2+(1-2.8)^2+(1-2.8)^2+(10-2.8)^2)5 = 16.2
coefficient =var/sd = 12.96/2.8 =5.8
80-20 1:10
4)
c population | c income | % pop | %inc |
1 | 1 | 20% | 7% |
2 | 2 | 40% | 14% |
3 | 3 | 60% | 21% |
4 | 4 | 80% | 29% |
5 | 14 | 100% | 100% |
=.5*(.07+.76)*.60 +.5*(.76+1.00)*.20
.425
5)
= .51
for country B similarly
country A
mean = (1+1+10+10+10)/5 = 8.2
var = 16.2
coefficient =var/sd = 16.2/8.2=1.97
80-20 10:1
4)
cupopulation | c income | % pop | %inc |
1 | 1 | 20% | 2% |
2 | 11 | 40% | 27% |
3 | 21 | 60% | 51% |
4 | 31 | 80% | 76% |
5 | 41 | 100% | 100% |
area = .5(.02+1)*.80 =.40
5)
= .175
b)
clearly there is more inequality in country A
Get Answers For Free
Most questions answered within 1 hours.