If the Market value for an asset does not equal the price that CAPM (or maybe the APT) suggests that it should be, does that suggest that there would be an unexploited arbitrage opportunity
No, it does not suggest that there would be an unexploited arbitrage opportunity.
We know that arbitrage opportunities exist as a result of market inefficiencies, which allow investors to exploit price differences. In case of CAPM only beta factor i.e. market volatility is taken into consideration. Although in case of Arbitrage pricing theory has more factors including non company factors making it more complex. Both APT and CAPM are not comprehensive measure of the market price, it depends on the investor's discretion also.
So, the market value may not be equal to the market price determined by these two models resulting no opportunity for arbitrage.
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