Together with large current account deficits, the Argentine government began running increasingly large budget deficits. How might this be structurally related to the choice of a fixed exchange rate regime?
deficits were needed to finance capital outflow at the established rate |
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with no monetary policy, fiscal policy became the only macroeconomic policy tool to fight recessions |
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fiscal profligacy had nothing to do with the exchange rate, Argentina's political leadership was as irresponsible as its monetary leadership had been |
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the debt allowed Argentina's government to import arms for an attempt at another war with Brittain |
In the early 90s Argentina adopted a currency board, fixing the peso to the USD. What was the main motivation for this?
to enhance export competitiveness |
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to join the United States as a territory |
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to tame inflation |
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to create an overvalued real exchange rate |
While inflation fell and stabilized, Argentina ran growign current account deficits through the 90s. What was the primary cause of this?
overvalued real exchange rate |
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financial contagion from East Asian Crises |
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growing government budget surplus |
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primary export commodity price spike |
1) deficits were needed to finance capital outflow at the established rate.
This occurs when the government seeks to keep the value of a currency fixed against another currency.
2) to tame inflation
For taming inflation, long-term planning, regulatory support and
coordinated efforts by the government, businesses and better
consumer-awareness may have to get much more attention than they
are getting now
3) overvalued real exchange rate.
An overvalued exchange rate implies that a countries currency is too high for the state of the economy. An overvalued exchange rate means that the countries exports will be relatively expensive and imports cheaper. An overvalued exchange rate tends to depress domestic demand and encourage spending on imports.
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