Why do you suppose an animal virus grown in (and then isolated from) tissue culture might be more susceptible to inactivation by antibody than a similar virus propagated (and then isolated from) in an animal?
Assume you do the assay by isolating the viruses grown in these two different environments from antibody and then seek to compare in a controlled environment, which virus particle is inactivated more readily by the presence of appropriate antibody.
An animal virus grown in (and then isolated from) tissue culture might be more susceptible to inactivation by antibody than a similar virus propagated (and then isolated from) in an animal, here the animal virus , which is grown in a tissue culture that is more susceptible , due to the presence of antibody. Thus this virus particle is inactivated more readily by the presence of appropriate antibody in the tissue culture sample.
But for a similar virus propagated (and then isolated from) in an animal, its susceptible capabilities and inhibition capacities depends on the production of appropriate antibody against the virus. Also the presence or absence of those genes which are responsible for the generation of those particular antibodies.
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