Given the data below, what is the equipment variation as a percent of process variation (Use the ANOVA method)? (Data set in the comments)
Part | Appraiser | Trial | Measurement |
1 | 1 | 1 | 8.188 |
1 | 1 | 2 | 8.129 |
1 | 2 | 1 | 8.525 |
1 | 2 | 2 | 8.698 |
1 | 3 | 1 | 8.591 |
1 | 3 | 2 | 8.73 |
1 | 4 | 1 | 9.477 |
1 | 4 | 2 | 9.262 |
2 | 1 | 1 | 12.518 |
2 | 1 | 2 | 12.426 |
2 | 2 | 1 | 13.399 |
2 | 2 | 2 | 13.408 |
2 | 3 | 1 | 14.538 |
2 | 3 | 2 | 14.372 |
2 | 4 | 1 | 14.64 |
2 | 4 | 2 | 14.654 |
3 | 1 | 1 | 12.633 |
3 | 1 | 2 | 12.462 |
3 | 2 | 1 | 13.958 |
3 | 2 | 2 | 13.963 |
3 | 3 | 1 | 14.061 |
3 | 3 | 2 | 13.799 |
3 | 4 | 1 | 15.382 |
3 | 4 | 2 | 15.552 |
4 | 1 | 1 | 18.042 |
4 | 1 | 2 | 18.139 |
4 | 2 | 1 | 18.273 |
4 | 2 | 2 | 18.523 |
4 | 3 | 1 | 18.687 |
4 | 3 | 2 | 18.862 |
4 | 4 | 1 | 20.973 |
4 | 4 | 2 | 20.808 |
Two-way ANOVA: Measurement versus Part, Appraiser
Source | DF | SS | MS | F | P-value |
Part | 3 | 427.744 | 142.581 | 11644.57 | 0.000 |
Appraiser | 3 | 21.513 | 7.171 | 585.66 | 0.000 |
Interaction | 9 | 4.248 | 0.472 | 38.54 | 0.000 |
Error | 16 | 0.196 | 0.012 | ||
Total | 31 | 453.700 |
The equipment variation as a percent of process variation=(SS due to Part/SS dur to total)*100=(427.744/453.700)*100=94.28% i.e. 94.28% of total process variation is explained by the equipment variation.
Here we see that Interaction between Part and Appraiser is significantly present (since P-value<0.05) so it is required to test Part and Appraiser individually.
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