A newspaper report of a study, in which the sex ratio of children born to families in a native community of Ontario was found to deviate significantly from the continental average ratio, claimed that "there was only a one-percent probability that the results were due to chance." What do you think this statement refers to? Rewrite this statement so that it is correct.
Please post a more coherent answer than what has already been provided. The other answer does not make sense to me.
Edit* There is no data to provide. This is the question being asked and all the information that is given
This is a problem of hypothesis test corresponding to one sample proportion test. Sample was drawn from population of Ontario. Sample sex ratio was calculated and compared with continental average ratio. It was found that sex ratio deviated from continental average ratio significantly with level of significance . So, conclusion (as mentioned in the question) was drawn.
Corresponding level of confidence is .
Given statement refers to the following one.
Based on the observed data about sample population of Ontario, with 99% confidence we can conclude that sex ratio deviates from continental average ratio.
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