The owner of an automobile insures it against damage by purchasing an insurance policy with a deductible of 250. In the event that the automobile is damaged, repair costs can be modeled by a uniform random variable on the interval (0, 1500). I know how to solve the problem, I would like to know why cant I use Var(Y) = Var(X) - Var(250), where Y = X - 250?
Here a=1 and b= -250
Var(X-250) = (1)^2 Var(X) = Var(X)
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