Does P(A∩B|C)=P(A|C)P(B|C) imply that A and B are independent? Assume P(C)>0, so that the conditional probabilities are defined.
- yes
- no
Please explain the answer
The correct answer is no. [ANSWER]
Explanation:
P(A∩B|C)=P(A|C)P(B|C) does not imply that A and B are independent, it only implies that A and B are independent conditional on C.
The events A and B can be said to be independent if and only if P(A∩B)=P(A)P(B).
This is because the fact that if P(A∩B|C)=P(A|C)P(B|C) holds then it does not imply or guarantee that P(A∩B)=P(A)P(B) will hold.
For any queries, feel free to comment and ask.
If the solution was helpful to you, don't forget to upvote it by clicking on the 'thumbs up' button.
Get Answers For Free
Most questions answered within 1 hours.