What causes the p-value to be the same in an independent sample t-test and as a one-way ANOVA?
1. Is it because dependent variables are the same while the independent variable is different across the two methods?
2. Because ANOVA is a special case of the independent samples t-test.
3. Because ANOVA is a generalization of the independent sample t-test?
3. Because ANOVA is a generalization of the independent sample t-test.
Explanation:
We use the independent samples t-test for the comparison of the two population means, but when we are given more than two populations for comparison, and then we need to perform more than one t-test. For example, for comparison of the three population means, we need to perform 3 different independent samples t-tests. So, for avoiding doing these several multiple t-tests, we use ANOVA F test as the generalization of the independent samples t-test.
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