With Everything else held fixed, the P-value of a one-sided test is always half that of the corresponding two-sided test.
Why this statement is false? Please give an explanation, thank you.
Solution:-
False, the P-value of a one-sided test is not always half that of the corresponding two-sided test.
In few cases the p-value of one-sided test is half that of the corresponding two-sided test, whereas the case is always same.
Case I
One tailed test.
Null hypothesis: u < X
Alternative hypothesis: u > X
Let z = 2.2
p-value for right tailed test is P(z > 2.2) = 0.014
Two tailed test
Null hypothesis: u = X
Alternative hypothesis: u
X
Let z = 2.2
p-value for right tailed test is P(-2.2 > z > 2.2) = 0.028
Case II
One tailed test.
Null hypothesis: u > X
Alternative hypothesis: u < X
Let z = 2.2
p-value for left tailed test is P(z < 2.2) = 0.986
Two tailed test
Null hypothesis: u = X
Alternative hypothesis: u
X
Let z = 2.2
p-value for right tailed test is P(-2.2 > z > 2.2) = 0.028
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