Suppose that a lifetime is either 1 year or 2 years uniformly. A company has a 4000 benefit life insurance with this life. Assume a constant force of interest of .01
Prove that the variance is equal to 388.181448248629
If the life was in fact 1 year, then the present value of the benefits = 4000/(1+r)
r=0.01
PV(1) =4000/(1.01)
=$3960.39
The present value of the benefits of this insurance contract for 2 years = 4000/(1+r)2
PV(2) =4000/(1.01)2
=$3921.18
Now ,mean of the present value of the benefits of this insurance contract = [PV(1) +PV(2)]/2
= (3960.39 + 3921.18)/2
=$3940.78
Variance =
=
=
= 768.7121
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