A nationally representative study of U.S. women found that although 40% of women reported experiencing low sexual desire, decreased sexual arousal, and/or problems reaching orgasm, only 12% (of the women with issues) indicated that these issues were a source of personal distress (Shifren et al.,2008).
•If this study was done on men, do you think the findings would be similar? Why or why not?
I do not think that this study on men would produce the same results. The current pattern of our society has a tendency to suppress the acceptance and expression of female sexuality. These societal values and norms are implicitly imbibed by its female members, and this would perhaps explain the why women do not see low sexual arousal as a major issue. Men, on the other hand, enjoy much more freedom with respect to their sexuality and I would believe that they would be much more distressed if they faced low sexual arousal.
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