The Institute of Medicine’s definition of healthcare disparities views the social differences in healthcare utilization that are driven by clinical need and appropriates (e.g. due to age, having certain clinical conditions) and patient preferences or beliefs as not necessarily unfair, and hence potentially not contributing to disparities. First, provide an example of what this view means. Then, do you agree with this view? Why/why not?
Providing care based on the condition , need of person , utilization of available services based on condition doesn't give any disparities. The safe based on determinants of health care utilization. If patient care given based on preference of place, Beliefs its become unfair. Main example for this is Racism. Racism is defined as belief that race is fundamental determinant of human trait and capacity for any .
In health department we should not accept Racism , because if we didn't care needy people at right time according to right treatment, IG we think preference, beliefs ,there's chance of loss of life.
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