Question

1. True or False: If the individual has no pulse and the rhythm is NOT shockable, always insert an advanced airway before starting CPR.
   • True
   • False
2. True or False: Medication is the only treatment for an unstable tachycardic individual.
   • True
   • False
3. Which of the following is NOT an element of effective resuscitation team dynamics?
   • Clear roles and responsibilities
   • Knowing one's limitations
   • Shouting or yelling at team members
   • Closed-loop communication
4. Which item is NOT a basic airway skill?
   • Placement of endotracheal tube (ET tube)
   • Head-tilt-chin-lift maneuver
   • Bag-mask ventilation
   • Jaw-thrust maneuver without head extension
5. Blood or secretions in the mouth or upper respiratory tract may threaten the airway. How can they be removed?
   • Bag-mask ventllation
   • Laryngeal tube
   • None of the above
   • Suctioning
6. What item is NOT an example of Advanced Airways?
   • Laryngeal mask airway (LMA)
   • Endotracheal tube (ET tube)
   • Esophageal-tracheal tube (combitube)
   • Oropharyngeal airway (OPA)
7. The compression-to-ventilation ratio during CPR prior to placement of an advanced airway is:
   • 15:02
   • 30:02:00
   • 30:01:00
   • 20:01
8. What reason is NOT valid during the critical early defibrillation for individuals experiencing sudden cardiac arrest?
   • Individuals in asystole respond well to early defibrillation.
   • The probability of successful defibrillation decreases quickly over time.
   • A common initial rhythm in out-of-hospital witnessed sudden cardiac arrest is ventricular fibrillation (VF).
   • The most effective treatment for ventricular fibrillation (VF) is electrical defibrillation.
9. True statements about AED use in special situations include all of the following EXCEPT:
   • Extra care in placing electrode pads may be needed in individuals with a hairy chest.
   • Leave medication patches in place and place the AED electrode pads directly over the patch.
   • Do not use an AED in water.
   • Do not place the AED electrode pads directly over an implanted defibrillator or pacemaker.
10. Immediately following a shock, CPR should be resumed for how many minutes?
    • 10 minutes
    • One minute
    • Five minutes
    • Two minutes
11. Antiarrhythmic drugs to consider for persistent VF/pulseless VT include all of the following EXCEPT:
    • Lidocaine
    • Amiodarone
    • Magnesium
    • Atropine
12. The order of priority for routes of access for drugs is:
    • IV route, IO route, ET route
    • IO route, ET route, IV route
    • ET route, IV route, IO route
    • IO route, IV route, ET route
13. Common causes of PEA include all of the following EXCEPT:
    • Hypothermia
    • Hyperventilation
    • Hyperkalemia
    • Hypoxia
14. The two most common and easily reversible causes of PEA are:
    • Acidosis and hypokalemia
    • Hypoglycemia and cardiac tamponade
    • Hypovolemia and hypoxia
    • Toxins and trauma
15. Bradycardia is defined as any rhythm disorder with a heart rate less than:
    • 40 beats per minute
    • 50 beats per minute
    • 60 beats per minute
    • 70 beats per minute
16. In the absence of immediately reversible causes, what is the first-line drug given for symptomatic bradycardia?
    • Nitroglycerine
    • Atropine
    • Metoprolol
    • Albuterol
17. Indications for transcutaneous pacing (TCP) include all of the following EXCEPT:
    • Asystole
    • Hemodynamically unstable bradycardia
    • Unstable third-degree AV block
    • Bradycardia with symptomatic ventricular escape rhythms
18. Serious signs and symptoms of unstable tachycardia are usually NOT seen with ventricular rates less than:
    • 120 beats per minute
    • 200 beats per minute
    • 150 beats per minute
    • 250 beats per minute
19. Where is the start of the mechanical movement of the heart generally thought to begin?
    • Right atrium
    • Left ventricle
    • Right ventricle
    • Left atrium
20. What does the QRS represent?
    • Conduction through the AV node
    • Depolarization of the ventricular
    • SA node
    • Repolarization of the ventricular
21. What does the PR interval on an ECG reflect?
    • Opening of mitral valve between the left atrium and left ventricle
    • Width of septum
    • Time between atrial and ventricular contraction
    • T wave inversion
22. Which of the following may be essential to maintain an individual’s airway open?
    • Chest thrusts
    • Suctioning
    • Rescue breaths
    • O2 administration
23. According to the 2015 ILCOR update, high-quality CPR is defined as:
    • 80 chest compressions per minute at a depth of at least one inch
    • 100 chest compressions per minute at a depth of at least one inch
    • 80 chest compressions per minute at a depth of at least two inches
    • 100-120 chest compressions per minute at a depth of at least two inches, but not greater than 2.4 inches
24. This is an example of what type of heart rhythm?

    ECG

    • Atrial fibrillation
    • Normal sinus rhythm
    • Ventricular fibrillation
    • Asystole
25. Treatment of PEA should include the following EXCEPT:
    • Identify and reverse etiologies of the arrest
    • Effective CPR
    • Defibrillation
    • Epinephrine
26. This is an example of which type of heart rhythm?

    ECG Strip

    • Ventricular flutter
    • Asystole
    • Pulseless electrical activity
    • Atrial fibrillation
27. All of the following can be considered an underlying cause of pulseless electrical activity EXCEPT:
    • Acute toxin ingestion
    • Hypovolemia
    • Hyperglycemia
    • Hypoxia
28. An important link in the STEMI Chain of Survival is improving myocardial perfusion by:
    • CPR
    • Defibrillation
    • Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolytics
    • Chest compressions
29. Individuals experiencing a suspected ACS should be transported to:
    • An appropriate center for triage
    • A facility with trauma care
    • A center that has a dedicated stroke team
    • A facility that performs PCI
30. All of the following are bradycardic rhythms EXCEPT:
    • Ventricular fibrillation
    • First-degree heart block
    • Third-degree heart block
    • All of the above are bradycardic rhythms.
31. In a bradycardic individual who is symptomatic and does not respond to atropine, the next treatment to consider is:
    • Analgesics
    • Sedatives
    • Amiodarone
    • Transcutaneous pacing
32. If an individual suffering from tachycardia loses their pulse, the following should be done:
    • Immediate defibrillation
    • Administer atropine
    • CPR until pulse is detectable
    • Immediately resume CPR and switch to ACLS cardiac arrest algorithm
33. Which of the following is a correct statement regarding sinus tachycardia?
    • Sinus tachycardia should always be treated with shock therapy.
    • Sinus tachycardia only results from strenuous exercise or high stress situations.
    • The goal of treatment is to identify and correct the underlying cause.
    • Sinus tachycardia is a normal rhythm and never considered dangerous.
34. Where does sinus tachycardia originate?
    • Purkinje system
    • Septum wall
    • Sinoatrial node
    • Atrioventricular node
35. A _____________ is required to assess for STEMI.
    • 12-lead ECG
    • Vagal maneuvers
    • Defibrillator
    • Transcutaneous pacing
36. All of the following are considered classic symptoms of an acute stroke EXCEPT:
    • A. Jaw pain
    • B. Headache
    • C. Numbness
    • D. All of the above are symptoms
37. Upon assessment, the individiual is confused and complains of a headache and the left side of his body being numb. What do you suspect is the most likely diagnosis?
    • Unstable tachycardia
    • Acute coronary syndrome
    • Acute stroke
    • Sepsis
38. All of the following are appropriate actions by first responders EXCEPT:
    • Find IV access immediately.
    • Transport to a nearby stroke center.
    • Administer oxygen.
    • Check glucose level.
39. In confirming and monitoring placement of the ET tube, the 2015 ACLS guidelines suggest what?
    • Glucose check
    • Blood pressure monitoring
    • Quantitative waveform capnography
    • Pulse oximetry
40. Why should therapeutic hypothermia be considered in an adult comatose person during the post-cardiac arrest period?
    • To re-establish circulation
    • To prevent sepsis
    • To protect the brain/organs
    • To prevent tachycardia
41. All of the following are goals of resuscitation EXCEPT:
    • Maintain blood pressure.
    • Adequate perfusion.
    • Decrease glucose level.
    • Obtain normal sinus rhythm.
42. Within what time period of arrival to the ED is percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) recommended for STEMI individuals?
    • 10 minutes
    • 20 minutes
    • 90 minutes
    • 150 minutes

Answer 1

Ans 1 - false

Explanation - for CPR there is no need of putting a specialised airway when there is no pulse found

Ans 2 - true

Explanation - medication bis the only treatment of unstable angina

Ans 3 - shouting and yelling at team mates is not to be done

Explanation - other all options are true

Ans 4 - placement of Endotracheal tube,

Explanation - this does not come under basic airway skill, rest all options comes under basic airway skill. Endotracheal tube placement comes under advance airway