either prove that it’s true by explicitly using limit laws, or give examples of functions that contradict the statement
a) If limx→0 [f(x)g(x)] exists as a real number, then both limx→0 f(x) and limx→0 g(x) must exist as real numbers
b) If both limx→0 [f(x) − g(x)] and limx→0 f(x) exist as real numbers, then limx→0 g(x) must exist as a real number
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