The cash flow diagram below has an internal rate of return of 30%. What is the value of Y if perpetual service is assumed?
Year 0 is $1000000
Year 1 is $500000
Year 2 is $500000
Year 3 is $Y
Year 4 is $Y
Year 5 is $Y
Year 6 is $Y
Year ∞ is $Y
cash flow | PV @ IRR 30% | PV | |
yr0 | 1000000 | 1 | |
yr1 | 500000 | 0.769230769 | 384615.3846 |
yr2 | 500000 | 0.591715976 | 295857.9882 |
yr3 | Y | 0.455166136 | 0.4551661 Y |
yr4 | Y | 0.350127797 | 0.3501278 y |
yr5 | Y | 0.269329074 | 0.269329 y |
yr6 | Y | 0.207176211 | 0.207176 y |
yr ∞ | Y | 0.69058737 | 0.690587 y |
1.972386588 | 680473.373+1.9723865 y | ||
total Known amount = | 680473.3728 | ||
1000000 = 680473.373+1.9724Y | |||
1.9724Y = | 319526.6272 | ||
Y = 319526.63/1.9724 | 161998.8998 | ||
y = 161998.9 SAY 162000 | |||
Cash flow in year 0 = 1000000 is out flow and at IRR the PV of inflow will be equal to PV of outflow. the PV factor at year 6 =0.207176211. but the cash flow is perpetual after year 6, then the PV of perpetuity at 6th year end = cash flow / discount rate = y/.3 = 3.333 is discounted by using 6th year discound rate =3.33333 x 0.207176211 = 0.69058737
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