A hedge fund can enter a 6-month forward contract on a stock for a forward price of $41. The current stock price is $40. The 6-month risk-free rate is 3% (per year) and the stock pays no dividends. Describe an arbitrage opportunity.
Please, help me with this .
In an effficient market,
Should be Forward Price of a stock is = Current stock Price + Interest Rate for the forward period.
In the gaive case,
Should be Forward price = 40 X (1.03)^1/2.....................[fwd period is 6 months]
= $40.60
As you can see, Should be Forward price is not equal to the actual Forward Price, therefor there exists an Arbitrage opportunity which is shown in the below steps.
Step 1: (T = 0) Sell stock 6 month Forward at $41
Inflow = outflow = 0
Step 2: (T=0) Buy Stock Spot @ $40 by borrowing the money from somewhere at 3% (Rf) for 6 months.
Step 3: (T = 6 month) Inflow = $41 ........................( from Forward sell contract)
Step 4: (t= 6 months) Outflow = $40 X (1.03)^1/2..........................(repayment of loan with interest)
= $ 40.60
Therefore arbitrage profit = Inflow - Outflow
= 41 - 40.60
= $ 0.40
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