If the simple CAPM is valid and all portfolios are priced
correctly, which of the situations below is possible? Consider each
situation independently, and assume the risk-free rate is 5%.
A)
Portfolio | Expected Return |
Beta | ||||
A | 11 | % | 1.1 | |||
Market | 11 | % | 1.0 |
B)
Portfolio | Expected Return |
Standard Deviation |
||||
A | 14 | % | 11 | % | ||
Market | 9 | % | 19 | % |
C)
Portfolio | Expected Return |
Beta | ||||
A | 14 | % | 1.1 | |||
Market | 9 | % | 1.0 |
D)
Portfolio | Expected Return |
Beta | ||||
A | 17.6 | % | 2.1 | |||
Market | 11 | % | 1.0 |
Option A |
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Option B |
||
Option C |
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Option D |
A) As Per CAPM Expected Return =Risk free rate+Beta*(Market
Return -Risk free Rate) =5%+1.1*(11%-5%) =11.60%
(Portfolio is not correctly Priced)
B) Standard Deviation alone cannot determine expected return using
CAPM
C) As Per CAPM Expected Return =Risk free rate+Beta*(Market Return
-Risk free Rate) =5%+1.1*(9%-5%) =9.40%
(Portfolio is not correctly Priced)
D) As Per CAPM Expected Return =Risk free rate+Beta*(Market
Return -Risk free Rate) =5%+2.1*(11%-5%) =17.60%
Required Rate and Expected Return of Portfolio are Same
(Portfolio is correctly Priced)
Option D is corrrect option
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