Problem: triangular arbitrage
A. Bid 1 euro = 1.11$ Ask 1 euro = 1.12$
B. Bid $1 = 0.75 GBP Ask $1 = 0.76 GBP
C. Bid 1 GBP = 1.2 euros Ask 1 GBP = 1.21 euros
Using 1000 GBP, show whether arbitrage is possible (show both scenarios and compute profits/losses).
Scenario 1:
Convert 1000 GBP into Euro and get 1000*1.2 = 1,200 Euro
Convert Euro into Dollar and get 1,200*1.11 = $1,332
Convert Dollar back into GBP = 1,332*0.75 = GBP 999
Profit/Loss = 999 GBP - 1,000 GBP = (1)GBP
i.e. Loss
Scenario 2:
Convert 1000 GBP into Dollar and get 1,000/0.76 = $1,315.78947
Convert into Euro 1,315.78947/1.12 = Euro 1,174.8120
Convert into GBP = 1,174.8120/1.21 = GBP 970.92
Profit/Loss = 970.92 - 1,000 = GBP (29.08)
Hence, arbitrage is NOT possible, since no profit
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