Assume that the risk-free rate of interest is 3% and the expected rate of return on the market is 15%. I am buying a firm with an expected perpetual cash flow of $1,000 but am unsure of its risk. If I think the beta of the firm is 0.8, when in fact the beta is really 1.6, how much more will I offer for the firm than it is truly worth? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.)
Given, | ||||||
Risk free rate (Rf) | 3% | |||||
Market return (Rm) | 15% | |||||
Perpetual cashflow | $1,000 | |||||
Offered beta | 0.8 | |||||
Actual beta | 1.6 | |||||
We know, | ||||||
As per CAPM, | ||||||
Required return= Rf+(Rm-Rf)*Beta | ||||||
Required return based on the offered beta | ||||||
Required return= 3+(15-3)*0.8 | ||||||
12.60% | ||||||
Required return based on the actual beta | ||||||
Required return= 3+(15-3)*1.6 | ||||||
22.20% | ||||||
Value of the firm= Perpetual cashflow/Required return | ||||||
Value of the firm based on offered beta= 1000/12.60 | ||||||
$79.37 | (rounded off to two decimal places) | |||||
Value of the firm based on actual beta= 1000/22.20 | ||||||
$45.05 | (rounded off to two decimal places) | |||||
Therefore, | ||||||
Extra offered= $(79.37-45.05) | ||||||
$34.32 | (rounded off to two decimal places) |
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