Problem 11-22
MIRR
A project has the following cash flows:
0 | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 |
-$300 | $164 | -$X | $221 | $360 | $476 |
This project requires two outflows at Years 0 and 2, but the remaining cash flows are positive. Its WACC is 12%, and its MIRR is 14.69%. What is the Year 2 cash outflow? Round your answer to the nearest cent.
We use the formula:
A=P(1+r/100)^n
where
A=future value
P=present value
r=rate of interest
n=time period.
Hence future value of inflows=164(1.12)^4+221(1.12)^2+360(1.12)+476
=$1414.479575
Present value of outflows=Cash outflows*Present value of discounting factor(rate%,time period)
=300+X/1.12^2
MIRR=[Future value of inflows/Present value of outflows]^(1/time period)-1
0.1469=[1414.479575/(300+X/1.12^2)]^(1/5)-1
(1+0.1469)^5=[1414.479575/(300+X/1.12^2)]
1.984393353=[1414.479575/(300+X/1.12^2)]
(300+X/1.12^2)=1414.479575/1.984393353
X/1.12^2=712.8020121-300
X=(412.8020121*1.12^2)
which is equal to
=$517.82(Approx).
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