Question

Company: BubblePop Project: APPKiller You’re the CFO of the tech company, BubblePop. Your CMO (Chief Marketing...

Company: BubblePop Project: APPKiller You’re the CFO of the tech company, BubblePop. Your CMO (Chief Marketing Officer) is proposing a new product called APPKiller that will be sold online for $10 per unit. The CMO expects sales of 100,000, 110,000, 120,000, 90,000 and 70,000 units over the products 5 year life. COGS is 20% of sales and operating expenses are estimated at $350,000 per year. The company’s tax rate is 30%.

The initial investment in the project is as follows.

 $1,000,000 for fixed equipment machinery

 $200,000 in initial raw materials

The machinery is depreciated over 8 years straight-line ($125,000 per year).

At the end of 5 years, the product is expected to become obsolete. The machinery will be sold off for $600,000 at that time. Raw materials will be sold off netting the company the $200,000 back that they had originally invested.

FYI, the company has already spent $75k on an overpriced consultant last year analyzing this deal. (I heard he was a college professor in RI).

Oh, and about their WACC……

 The company’s stock is trading for $20 per share. There are 50,000 shares outstanding. Company beta is 2.0. The market risk premium is 6% and the risk free rate of return is 3%.

 Corporate debt matures in 2020 and is trading at 90% on 800 bonds with a par value of $1,000. The coupon rate is 10%. The bonds pay coupons semi-annually (2x per year).

 The company has a small amount of Preferred stock. 2,000 shares trading at $90. Par value is $100 and annual income on the Preferred stock is 9.5%.

Using NPV, should the company invest in the APPKiller project?

Homework Answers

Answer #1

A. Amount paid to the consultant is sunk cost and will not affect decision making. The same has to be ignored in our calculations.

B. The time period of corporate debt is unclear from the question, hence the same is taken to be 10 years.

C. Notes with regard to the calculation are as follows:-

  • Interest on loan = 10% of $800,000 every year = $80,000
  • For calculating Free cash flow for firm, we take Net income+ depreciation +interest (1-t) - capex - net working capital. Hence, we calculated the present value of (NET INCOME + DEPRECIATION + INTEREST(1-T) including terminal value) and we subtracted initial investment and net working capital change.

D.

year 0 Years                    1                    2                    3                  4                  5 year 5
Initial investment (1,000,000) Production Terminal value - machine     600,000
NWC change       (200,000) Sales       100,000       110,000       120,000        90,000        70,000 tax saving on capital loss     120,000
Initial investment (1,200,000) Revenue per unit                  10                  10                  10                10                10 Terminal value - NWC     200,000
Revenue    1,000,000    1,100,000    1,200,000     900,000     700,000     920,000
-COGS     (200,000)     (220,000)     (240,000) (180,000) (140,000)
- operating expenses     (350,000)     (350,000)     (350,000) (350,000) (350,000)
EBITDA       450,000       530,000       610,000     370,000     210,000
-dep     (125,000)     (125,000)     (125,000) (125,000) (125,000)
EBIT       325,000       405,000       485,000     245,000        85,000
-intt       (80,000)       (80,000)       (80,000)     (80,000)     (80,000)
PBT       245,000       325,000       405,000     165,000          5,000
-tax@30%       (73,500)       (97,500)     (121,500)     (49,500)        (1,500)
PAT       171,500       227,500       283,500     115,500          3,500
+dep       125,000       125,000       125,000     125,000     125,000
+interest(1-t)          56,000          56,000          56,000        56,000        56,000
FCFE       352,500       408,500       464,500     296,500     184,500
+Add terminal value     920,000
Discounted to T=0 @11.29%       316,745       329,833       337,008     193,299     647,027
Total Present value    1,823,913
Net Present Value       623,913

E. WACC calculation is as follows:-

Price                             20
no. of shares                     50,000
CAPM (Re) = Rf+(Rm-rf)*Beta
Re (cost of equity) 15%
Par value  
                    48,000
                 760,000
6.32%
YTM(Cost of debt) 6.32%
Cost of preferred debt 10.56%
total market value of all debt and equity                 1,900,000
market value weights
Equity 15.00%               1,000,000                         0.53
debt 6.32%                  720,000                         0.38
preference 10.56%                  180,000                         0.09
              1,900,000                               1
WACC 11.29%
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