show work please aside from excel:)
So we know that the IRR is the rate at which the NPV is zero
So the Initial outlay = present values of cash inflows
If the IRR is r , then present values of cash inflows = 40000/(1+r) + 40000/(1+r)^2 + 30000 / (1+r)^3 + 30000/ (1+r)^4
There is no short formula for IRR other than trial and error or excel
So We will go by the options here,
when we put r = 12%, then present values of cash inflows = 40000/(1+0.12) + 40000/(1+0.12)^2 + 30000 / (1+0.12)^3 + 30000/ (1+0.12)^4 = 108021 ... ( The value should be equal to 80000 for NPV to be zero, so we have to icrease the rate for the Present value to be lower)
when we put r = 24.55%, then present values of cash inflows in similar way is 85894
when we put r = 28.89%, then present values of cash inflows in similar way is close to 80000
So the correct choice is d)The IRR is about 28.89%
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