Question

Consider two calls with the same time to expiration that are written on the same underlying...

Consider two calls with the same time to expiration that are written on the same underlying stock. Call One trades for $7 with a strike price of $100. Call Two has an exercise price of $95. What is the maximum price that Call Two can have? Use the potential arbitrage profits to critically explain your answer.

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Answer #1

Answer-

A no-arbitrage condition places an upper bound on the value of Call 2. The price of Call 2 cannot exceed the price of the option with the higher exercise price plus the $5 difference in the two exercise prices. Thus, the upper bound for the value of Call 2 is $12. If Call 2 is priced above $12, say, at $13, the following arbitrage becomes available.

Sell Call 2 for cash flow $13 and buy Call 1 for cash flow $7. This is a net cash inflow of $6. If Call 2 is exercised against you, you can immediately exercise Call 1. This provides the stock to meet the exercise of Call 1 against you. On the double exercise, you receive $95 and pay $100, for a net cash flow of $5. However, you received $6 at the time of trading for a net profit of $1. This is the worst case outcome

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