Consider the following two-portfolio scenario:
risk aversion A = A
risk premium S = 0.09 , std deviation of S = 0.18
risk premium H = 0.12, std deviation of H = .33
Assume: p (correlation coeff) = 0.30 ; horizon is 1 year; disregard risk-free rate.
What is the optimal asset allocation (of S and H)?
What is the risk premium on this portfolio?
Please refer to below spreadsheet for calculation and answer. Cell reference also provided.
Cell reference -
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