What would be the capital allocation between the risk free asset and the optimal risky investment portfolio for an individual with risk aversion coefficient of 3 ?
If the initial investment is $100,000, how much money should the investor allocate to each of the 5 assets (risk free asset and 4 risky assets). RF RATE 2% YEARLY
|
||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
My question is . how does this guy get .00781. From the table above.?
To maximize utility,
Capital allocation between risky and risk free asset are calculated as below.
Weight of risk asset=E(RRp) +E(Rf)/3*(.055088262)2
=-.00781/.00910
=-.85824
-85.824% invested in risky asset and 185.824%in risk free asset.
optimal portfolio consists of risky assets portfolio and risk free asset. Let suppose "w1" is the weight of risky asset portfolio, so remaining weight in optimal porfolio would be of risk free asset i.e. (1-w1)
optimal portfolio return = w1* risky asset + (1-w1)*risk free asset
To simplify the equation, we get
optimal portfolio return - risk free asset = w1(risky asset - risk free asset) -------------------------- (1)
optimal portfolio return is given as 0.01218804
risk free asset return is given as 2% = 0.02
Your question is how they got 0.00781
if you enter the above value in left hand side of equation (1), you get
0.01218804 - 0.02 = -0.0078116.
I hope you have already understood the other part of the given solution you have provided in the above question.
Thank you.
Get Answers For Free
Most questions answered within 1 hours.