Please solve the below showing all work (no excel, no financial cal.). Thanks.
The solution is provided below:
An asset is expected to make single cash flow payment of 100 in
20 years. Calculate its %change in price from a 4% to a 5%
yield.
=(100/1.05^20)/(100/1.04^20)-1=-17.419%
A 20-year annuity pays 5 annually. What is its price at a 4%
yield?
=5/4%*(1-1/1.04^20)=67.95163172
At 5%?
=5/5%*(1-1/1.05^20)=62.31105171
Calculate the %change in price between the two market
situations.
=(5/5%*(1-1/1.05^20))/(5/4%*(1-1/1.04^20))-1=-8.301%
Consider a 20-year bond, annual coupon=5. What is its price at a
4% yield?
=5/4%*(1-1/1.04^20)+100/1.04^20=113.5903263
At 5%?
=5/5%*(1-1/1.05^20)+100/1.05^20=100
Calculate the %change in price between the two market
situations.
=100/113.5903263-1
=-11.964%
How does your answer relate to those in Question 0 and Question 1?
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