How to prove the forward exchange rate is F = [S(1+rd) / (1+ rf )] under THE PRINCIPLE OF NO-ARBITRAGE? (S is the spot rate and F the forward rate, and rf and rd are foreign currency interest rates and domestic currency interest rates respectively) (Or you can show that F < S(1+rd) / (1+ rf ) and F > S(1+rd) / (1+ rf ) violates the principle of no-arbitrage)
Borrow S units of domestic currency for 1 year
Convert to foreign currency you wll get 1 unit of foreign currency
Invest at foreign rate for 1 year
Lets say after 1 year spot rate is F. As forward is the expected spot rate hence current forward rate will be F as well.
After 1 year
You have to return S*(1+rd) domestic currency
You will get 1*(1+rf) foreign currency which you will convert at
the prevailing spot rate of F hence you will get 1*(1+rf)*F
domestic currency
If the amount to be returned is not the same as amount you gote back, then there will be arbitrage
Hence,
S*(1+rd)=1*(1+rf)*F
=>F=S*(1+rd)/(1+rf)
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