The following information indicates percentage returns for stocks L and M over a 6-year period:
Year |
Stock L Returns |
Stock M Returns |
1 |
14.63% |
20.94% |
2 |
14.15% |
18.42% |
3 |
16.04% |
16.86% |
4 |
17.51% |
14.85% |
5 |
17.7% |
12.61% |
6 |
19.12% |
10.92% |
In combining [L−M] in a single portfolio, stock M would receive 60% of capital funds.
Furthermore, the information below reflects percentage returns for assets F, G, and H,over a 4-year period, with asset F being the base instrument:
Year |
Asset F Returns |
Asset G Returns |
Asset H Returns |
1 |
16.17% |
17.45% |
14.06% |
2 |
17.34% |
16.32% |
15.12% |
3 |
18.09% |
15.26% |
16.02% |
4 |
19.24% |
14.4% |
17.35% |
Using these assets, you have a choice of either combining [F−G] or [F−H] in a single portfolio, on an equally-weighted basis.
Required: Calculate the absolute percentage difference in the coefficient of variation (CV) between the stock portfolio [L−M] and the portfolio which outlines the optimal combination of assets.
Do not round intermediate calculations. Input your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.
In order to find the coefficient of variation, we need to use formula = Divide the standard deviation by the mean
Time | Stock L | Stock M | Asset F | Asset G | Asset H | |
1 | 14.63% | 20.94% | 16.17% | 17.45% | 14.06% | |
2 | 14.15% | 18.42% | 17.34% | 16.32% | 15.12% | |
3 | 16.04% | 16.86% | 18.09% | 15.26% | 16.02% | |
4 | 17.51% | 14.85% | 19.24% | 14.40% | 17.35% | |
5 | 17.70% | 12.61% | ||||
6 | 19.12% | 10.92% | ||||
Weight | 40.00% | 60.00% | 50.00% | 50.00% | 50.00% |
Time | Return of [L-M] | Return of [F-G] | Return of [F-H] |
1 | 18.42% | 16.81% | 15.12% |
2 | 16.71% | 16.83% | 16.23% |
3 | 16.53% | 16.68% | 17.06% |
4 | 15.91% | 16.82% | 18.30% |
5 | 14.65% | ||
6 | 14.20% | ||
Standard Deviation | 1.40% | 0.06% | 1.16% |
Mean | 16.07% | 16.78% | 16.67% |
Coefficient of Variation | 8.68% | 0.38% | 6.97% |
Percentage Difference | 8.31% |
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