A project will cost $67,000, its expected cash inflows are $9,900 per year for 8 years, and its WACC is 5%. What is the project’s MIRR? (Using the combination approach or the reinvestment approach will yield the same answer in this particular problem.) **Assume cash inflows are reinvested at the WACC**.
Select one:
A. 4.15%
B. 4.40%
C. 4.86%
D. 5.00%
E. 5.22%
Given about a project,
Initial cost Co = $67000
expected cash inflows are $9,900 per year for 8 years
WACC Kc = 5%
MIRR is calculated using following formula,
MIRR = (FV of future positive cash flows/PV of negative cash flows)^(1/t) - 1
So, here FV of future positive cash flow is calculated for all expected cash infloes for 8 years. It is calculated using FV formula of an ordinary annuity:
FV = PMT*((1+r)^t - 1)/r = 9900*(1.05^8 - 1)/0.05 = $94536.18
PV of negative cash flow = Co = $67000
t = 8 years,
So, MIRR = (94536.18/67000)^(1/8) - 1 = 4.40%
So, Option B is correct.
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