please show and explain all work!
The exchange rates now appear to be in order.
E1 = ¥ 64.00 / SF, E2 = SF 1.60 / $ and E3 = ¥ 105.00 / $
Implied ¥/$ rate = E1 x E2 = ¥ 64.00 / SF x SF 1.60 / $ = ¥ 102.40 / $
Actual ¥/$ rate = ¥ 105.00 / $
Since Implied ¥/$ rate < Actual ¥/$ rate , there exists an arbitrage opportunity.
Amount available, A = $ 100,000
Convert it into ¥ = E3 x A = 105 x 100,000 = ¥ 10,500,000
Convert it into SF = ¥ 10,500,000 / E1 = 10,500,000 / 64 = SF 164,062.50
Convert SF into $ = SF 164,062.50 / E2 = 164,062.50 / 1.60 = $ 102,539.06
So, i started with $ 100,000 and ended up with $ 102,539.06 by completing one full cycle of conversion between the currencies.
Hence, arbitrage gain = $ 102,539.06 - 100,000 = $ 2,539.06
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