Suppose the assets of a bank consist of $500 million of loans to BBB-rated corporations. The PD for the corporations is estimated as 0.3%. The average maturity is three years and the LGD is 60%. a. What is the total risk-weighted assets (RWA) for credit risk under the Basel II advanced IRB approach? Assume 99.9% confidence. b. How much Tier 1 is required? c. How does this compare with the capital required under Basel I?
Under the Basel II advanced IRB approach Risk weighted average asset (RWA)
WCDR = N [{N-1(PD) + √p N-1 (x)}/ √1-p]
WCDR = N [{N-1(0.003) + √0.2233 N-1 (0.999)}/ √1-0.2233]
WCDR = 0.0720
Where ,
p = 0.12[1 + e − 50×0.003 ] = 0.2233
b = [0.11852 − 0.05478 × ln (0.003)] 2 = 0.1907
MA = [1+ (3.0 – 2.5) * 0.1907] / 1- 1.5*0.1907
MA = 1.53
So,
RWA = 500 × 0.6 × (0.0720 − 0.003) × 1.53 × 12.5 = 397.13
The total capital is 8% of this or $31.77 million. Half of this must be Tier I. Under both the Basel II standardized approach and under Basel I the risk weight is 100% and the total capital required is 8% of $500 or $40 million.
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