Suppose there exists two inputs. At a cost minimizing bundle of inputs, the slope of the isoquant must be the ratio of the factor prices.Is this statement true, false or uncertain?
The statement is true.
The slope of the isoquant is given by = Marginal product of input 1 / Marginal product of input 2
At the cost minimization level, this has to be equal to the ratio of the price of input 1 / price of input 2
If for instance, the slope is higher than the price ratio, the marginal product per dollar of input 1 is higher and the firm should use more of input 1 to produce the same output at a cheaper rate. The equilibrium is only achieved when the two ratios are indeed equal.
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