In my opinion when the Fed buys $40 billion bonds from the private banks, which is a monetary policy via expansionary. The question is: pertaining to the relationship between aggregate demand, SRAS, and LRAS; WHEN WOULD THIS POLICY BE INAPPROPRIATE, AND EXPLAIN. Thanks.
The policy of monetary expansion is in appropriate in case when the economy is already expanding. this is because in such a situation there is an inflationary gap where the actual GDP is greater than the potential GDP. what the economy need at this stage is the monetary contraction that depresses the aggregate demand. Once the aggregate demand is reduced, AD will shift back and the inflationary gap will be eliminated. However if in such a situation, the central bank initiates a monetary expansion, AD will instead shift rightward and will aggravate the inflationary gap. Therefore monetary expansion is inappropriate when there is an inflationary gap.
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