Prescription drug own price elasticity has been estimated to be about -0.015. First, interpret this elasticity (and is it elastic or inelastic)? What are the implications of this elasticity in relation to price? Why is this elasticity so low (explain at least 2 potential reasons)
Elasticity value less than 1 is
inelastic and greater than 1 is elastic. So an elastic value of
-0.015 means the response of change in quantity demanded for a
change in price is very less.
The reasons:
1. Drugs being a necessity for curing a disease are consumed as per
the prescription of doctors hence the quantity demanded is
limited.
2. Patients or consumers would not consume more of drugs for a
reduction in price hence the quantity demanded would not change and
hence it is inelastic.
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