Risk Aversion
Suppose an individual has utility of wealth given by ?(?) = √?.
a. Does this utility function exhibit positive marginal utility of wealth, i.e. is ? ′ (?) > 0? What does this mean?
b. Does this utility function exhibit increasing or decreasing marginal utility of wealth, i.e. is ? ′′(?) > 0, or ? ′′(?) < 0? What does this mean?
c. Is this utility function consistent with risk aversion? Explain.
d. Define what a risk premium is and why it is important.
A) MU = dU/dw
= .5/√w
U'(w) > 0, so MU is positive
As Wealth rises, Utility rises
.
B) U"(w) = dMU/dw
= -.25*w^(-3/2) < 0
So Decreasing MU
so utility rises at Decreasing rate .
.
C) as U is Concave, U"(w) < 0,
so individual is Risk Averse.
.
d) risk premium is difference between Expected value & certainty equivalent CE.
it is important bcoz market risk premium is the additional return an investor should get from holding a risky market portfolio instead of risk-free assets.
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