Discuss the reasons why the aggregate demand (AD) curve slopes downward.
What causes the AD curve and aggregate supply (AS) curve to shift, respectively?
How would a change in AD and AS affect the economy, respectively?
Why do Keynesian economists emphasize AD whereas classical economists emphasize AS?
First question is answered below
Aggregate demand is a downward sloping curve that shows the
negative relationship between price and output or real gdp.
There are three reasons behind downward sloping aggregate
demand.
i) wealth effect- as price rises wealth consumers are holding
decreases because of constant money supply. Decrease in wealth
makes buyers poorer which makes them reduce their demand for goods
and services.
ii) interest rate effect- as the price rises buyers need more money
to buy goods which leads to increase demand for money. Because
money supply is constant, interest rate rises. Interest rate is the
return on bonds buyers can earn. So they reduce their demand.
iii) Net exports effect- as price level rises, foreign goods become
cheaper which leads to increase in demand for imports which
compensates for domestic goods. Thus demand for domestic goods
decreases.
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