In 2016, the British Open awarded about $8.5 million in prize
money while
the British Women’s Open awarded only $3 million. Is this evidence
of
gender discrimination in golf? Why or why not?
Technically speaking this is an example of gender discrimination in golf as for the same discipline the players are getting paid differently. However, it must be remembered that women and men play on different gold courses. The same courses are not chosen for men and women tournaments and also there are other factors like tee placements, the quickness of greens that determines the comparison between female and male tournaments. Thus there is discrimination of the pay between female and male. The difference pay between male and female players is an apt example of discrimination only if the conditions for the male and female players in terms of play is the same to allow a ready comparison.
Get Answers For Free
Most questions answered within 1 hours.