Huntington’s disease is caused by a dominant mutation. A twenty-year-old man has the mutation and does not show symptoms because:
a. |
the disorder involves incomplete penetrance |
|
b. |
all of these |
|
c. |
the disorder is a time of onset one |
|
d. |
the disorder affects men less often than women |
PLEASE-----PLEASE KINDLY UP-VOTE. IT HELPS ME A LOT. THANK YOU IN ADVANCE.
Get Answers For Free
Most questions answered within 1 hours.