The NHSLS used the criterion of an individual having experienced the sexual problem for 3 or more of the last 12 months. Do you think this period is long enough to identify someone as having a sexual problem? Under what life circumstances might 3 months of lack of sexual desire and/or response be “normal” instead of appropriately defined as a sexual problem? Cite if its necessary.
Yes, I think this period is long enough to identify someone as having a sexual problem because in the survey conducted by National health and social life survey, most of the person have talk about their sexual problem most often in this period.
In some conditions like if someone is feeling ashamed, some person have lack of sexual desire during the previous 1–12 months lack of sexual desire and/or response be “normal” instead of appropriately defined as a sexual problem.
Reference:
R Basson, Women's sexual dysfunction: revised and expanded definitions , CMAJ. 2005 May 10; 172(10): 1327–1333.
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