Marfan syndrome is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. What is the chance that a child will have the syndrome if one parent does not carry the associated allele, and the other is heterozygous for it? What about if both parents are heterozygotes? Is this disease always inherited from the parents?
I believe the correct answer to be:
If one parent is heterozygous, there is 50% chance that their offspring will have the Marfan syndrome.
If both the parents are heterozygous, there is 75% chance their offspring will have the disease as the disease follows the dominant pattern.
Yes, most of the individual that have the disease acquire them from their parents.
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