Why are gram-positive organisms susceptible to some antibiotics while gram-negative are resistant to the same antibiotics?
I believe the correct answer to be:
It all depends on the target that the drug is designed for. If a drug is targetted to inhibit the synthesis of peptidoglycan layer for example, which is available in thicker layer in gram positive bacteria, the effect of that drug would be higher in gram positive bacteria while the gram negative bacteria also have the peptidoglycan layer but since it is thin, it would be less sussceptible for that drug.
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