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Let f(x) and g(x) be polynomials and suppose that we have f(a) = g(a) for all...

Let f(x) and g(x) be polynomials and suppose that we have f(a) = g(a) for all real numbers a. In this case prove that f(x) and g(x) have exactly the same coefficients. [Hint: Consider the polynomial h(x) = f(x) − g(x). If h(x) has at least one nonzero coefficient then the equation h(x) = 0 has finitely many solutions.]

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