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Let f be a function which maps from the quaternion group, Q, to itself by f...

Let f be a function which maps from the quaternion group, Q, to itself by f (x) = i ∙x, for i∈ Q and each element x in Q. Show all work and explain! (i) Is ? a homomorphism? (ii) Is ? a 1-1 function? (iii) Does ? map onto Q?

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